Wednesday, January 19, 2011

Gambling vs Insurance

I came across a post over at Falkenblog (a fairly interesting blog that I just recently started reading) that discussed the paradox of people's proclivity both to gamble and to buy insurance. Eric Falkenstein writes,
People clearly like to gamble, and are willing to pay a premium for the exposure to random payoffs with large skew. This is contrary to the usual assumption that people are risk averse, and necessitate a positive expected return to take a gamble. 
Early on in utility theory, Friedman and Savage (1948) seized on this anomaly to argue that the curvature of an individual's utility function differs based upon the amount of wealth the individual has. This curving utility function would thereby explain why an individual is risk-loving when he has less wealth (e.g., by playing the lottery) and risk-averse when he is wealthier (e.g., by buying insurance)... 
The basic problem is that 
1) People pay to buy insurance. 
2) People pay to gamble.
It's still a puzzle, though every so often a new paper shows up to solve it.
Falkenstein's paradox made me think back to my very post here at The Crimson Cavalier, "On Insurance and Flat Tires" (for a refresher, I found a nail in the sidewall of my tire, and I was able to get the tire replaced for free, because I'd bought the "Tire Protection Plan", something I almost never do). In that post, I argued:
It is rare for the average individual or investor to do even basic expected value math (Expected loss = Probability of loss x Amount of potential loss) to determine what price they should be willing to pay for insurance. Insurance companies know this, and profit massively from it. Why, then, do people do this? Well, for the same reason that I'm an incredibly happy man this morning, that's why...
Frankly, it's biological--or, at least, psychological. We as humans are hard-wired for "loss aversion". While it may seem counter-intuitive, losing $100 causes us more pain than gaining $100 yields pleasure. It's bizarre, but it's true. Therefore, avoiding a $100 loss (or a $150 loss in the case of my flat tire) is actually more exciting than stumbling into a $100 gain. Yes, you heard right. I'm happier this morning than I would be if I'd come back to my car and seen a 100 dollar bill sticking out of my tire.
I think that this dynamic is key to deciphering Falkenstein's insurance/gambling paradox. I would argue that the reasons we buy insurance and the reasons we gamble are in fact one and the same.

When insurance pays to cover the costs of our crisis events, the excitement (or relief) that we feel at not having to pay to recover our loss more than compensates the added premium we paid along the way. Gambling is much the same. In both cases, we feel an incredible rush when we receive an unexpected gain. Not having to pay for a loss feels to us very much the same as an unexpected gain.

Ultimately, the decision to purchase insurance is not as simple as "risk-aversion", nor is the decision to gamble as simple as "risk-seeking". Rather, both decisions entail very complex psychological preferences with respect to our mental coding of gains and losses--our brains do some very strange accounting when it comes to unexpected financial results. (I'll link again now to the paper I linked to in my first post on insurance, in case you suffer from severe insomnia or masochistically enjoy reading dense academic treatises).

Of course, not all people suffer from this paradox. I, for one, avoid purchasing insurance whenever possible, but do enjoy gambling--you could call me a bit of a risk-taker, though I of course prefer to just think of myself as a coolly rational trader. Others will conversely avoid gambling and purchase insurance whenever possible. But the willingness to both gamble and purchase insurance should not be read as irrational or even necessarily inconsistent--it's just a reflection of our complex psychological wiring and the way we code gains and losses. I'll see you in Vegas.

[Falkenblog]

1 comment:

  1. The utility of money could be S-shaped to reflect the poor person's desire to increase ROI and earn an income stream, and then to reflect the rich person's desire to avoid risk and protect his or her income stream.

    But, rather, I guess that the utility of money varies with the individual and even individuals divide their money into investments, fixed expenses and consumption expenses. The utility of $1 which I plan to spend on consumption seems to have diminishing marginal utility, while the utility of a $1 investment could have increasing marginal utility. Is that paradoxical, given that I could reassign the money?

    I wrote about this at http://wnio.blogspot.com/2011/06/utility-of-gambling.html Cheers.

    ReplyDelete